Papers Q. 41 to 50

Q.: Which of the following combinations correctly describes a valid approach to component testing:
i) Functional testing of the component in isolation.
ii) Structure-based testing of the code without recording incidents.
iii) Automated tests that are run until the component passes.
iv) Functional testing of the interfaces between modules.
A. i and ii.
B. I_, ii and iii
C. iii.
D. ii and iv
 B is correct
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Q.: Which  of  the  following  is a  KEY  test  control  task?
A. Initiating  corrective  actions
B. Determining  the  scope
C. Implementing  the  test  policy
D. Scheduling  test  implementation
A is correct  
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Q.: What is the  name of a  skeletal  implementation  of a  software  component  that  is  used for  testing?
A. Use  case
B. Domain
C. Driver
D. Stub
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Q.: Which is the best definition of complete testing:
A. You have discovered every bug in the program.
B. You have tested every statement, branch, and combination of branches in the program.
C. You have completed every test in the test plan. 
D. You have reached the scheduled ship date.
A is correct  
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Q.: Complete statement and branch coverage means: 
A. That you have tested every statement in the program.
B. That you have tested every statement and every branch in the program.
C. That you have tested every IF statement in the program.
D. That you have tested every combination of values of IF statements in the program
B is correct  
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Q.: There are several risks of managing your project's schedule with a statistical reliability model. These include (choose one or more of the following):  
A. Testers spend more energy early in the product trying to find bugs than preparing to do the rest of the project's work more efficiently
B. Managers might not realize that the testing effort is ineffective, late in the project, because they expect a low rate of bug finding, so the low rate achieved doesn't alarm them.
C. It can increase the end-of-project pressure on testers to not find bugs, or to not report bugs.
D. All of the above
D is correct  
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Q.: Typical defects that are easier to find in reviews than in dynamic testing are:  
A. Deviations from standards,
B. Requirement defects,
C. Design defects,
D. Insufficient maintainability and incorrect interface specifications.
E. All of the above.
E is correct  
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Q.: Reviews, static analysis and dynamic testing have the same objective  
A. Identifying defects.
B. Fixing defects.
C. A. and B
D. None of the above
A is correct  
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Q.: What  techniques  would  be  MOST  appropriate if  the  specifications  are  outdated?  
A. Structure-based  and  experienced-based  techniques
B. Black-box  and  specification-based  techniques
C. Specification-based  and structure-based  techniques 
D. Structure-based  technique and  exhaustive  testing
A is correct
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Q.: Measurement dysfunction is a problem because:
A. Even though the numbers you look at appear better, to achieve these numbers, people are doing other aspects of their work much less well.
B. We don't know how to measure a variable (our measurement is dysfunctional) and so we don't know how to interpret the result.
C. You are measuring the wrong thing and thus reaching the wrong conclusions. 
D. All of the above.
A is correct
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Q.: A test manager wants to use the resources available for the automated testing of a web application. The best choice is
A. Test automater, web specialist, DBA, test lead
B. Tester, test automater, web specialist, DBA
C. Tester, test lead, test automater, DBA
D. Tester, web specialist, test lead, test automater
B is correct  
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Q.: What type of risk includes potential failure areas in the software?
A. Probed risks
B. Product risks
C. Economic risks
D. Requirements risks
B is correct
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Q.: Consider the following statements
i. A incident may be closed without being fixedii. Incidents may not be raised against documentation
iii. The final stage of incident tracking is fixing
iv. The incident record does not include information on test environments
v. Incidents should be raised when someone other than the author of the software performs the test
A. ii and v are true, I, iii and iv are false
B. i and v are true, ii, iii and iv are false
C. i, iv and v are true, ii and iii are false
D. i and ii are true, iii, iv and v are false
E. i is true, ii, iii, iv and v are false
B is correct
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Q.: Who OFTEN performs system testing and acceptance testing, respectively? 
A. Senior programmers and professional testers
B. Technical system testers and potential customers
C. Independent test team and users of the system
D. Development team and customers of the system
B is correct
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Q.: Which test levels are USUALLY included in the common type of V-model?  
A. Integration testing, system testing, acceptance testing, and regression testing
B. Component testing, integration testing, system testing, and acceptance testing
C. Incremental testing, exhaustive testing, exploratory testing, and data driven testing
D. Alpha testing, beta testing, black-box testing, and white-box testing
B is correct
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Q.: Which general testing principles are characterized by the descriptions below?  
W) Early testing
X) Defect clustering
Y) Pesticide paradox
Z) Absence-of-errors fallacy
1) Testing should start at the beginning of the project
2) Conformance to requirements and fitness for use
3) Small Number of modules contain the most defects
4) Test cases must be regularly renewed and revised
A. W1, X2, Y3, and Z4
B. W1, X3, Y4, and Z2
C. W2, X3, Y1, and Z4
D. W1, X4, Y2, and Z3 
B is correct
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Q.: How  are  (a)  static  analysis  tools  and  (b)  performance  testing  tools  different? 
A. (a) helps  in  enforcing  coding  standards; (b) tests  system  performance
B. (a) analyzes  security  vulnerabilities; (b) measures  the  effectiveness  of test  cases
C. (a) prepares  codes  prior to  testing; (b) prepares  codes  prior to  stress  testing 
D. (a) highlights  unreachable  conditions; (b) improves  system  performance
A is correct

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Q.: In an Examination a candidate has to score minimum of 24 marks in order to clear the exam. The maximum that he can score is 40 marks. Identify the Valid Equivalence values if the student clears the exam.
a) 22,23,26
b) 21,39,40
c) 29,30,31
d) 0,15,22 
C is correct 
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Q.: Which of the following describe test control actions that may occur during testing?

I. Setting an entry criterion that developers must retest fixes before fixes are accepted into a build.

II. Changing the test schedule due to availability of a test environment.

III. Re-prioritizing tests when development delivers software late

A. I only

B. II only

C. I, II and III

D. I and III

C is correct

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