Papers Q. 451 to 460


Q.: We split testing into distinct stages primarily because:
A. Each test stage has a different purpose.
B. It is easier to manage testing in stages.
C. We can run different tests in different environments.
D. The more stages we have, the better the testing.
A is correct
 

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Q.: Which of the following would NOT normally form part of a test plan?
A. Features to be tested
B. Incident reports
C. Risks
D. Schedule

B is correct
 

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Q.: What  should  be  considered  when  introducing  a  tool  into  an  organization?
A. Assessing  the  organizational  maturity
B. Counting  the  number  of systems  to  be 
tested 

C. Calculating  the  ratio  between  programmers  and  testers
D. Reviewing  the  exit  criteria  of  previous  projects

A is correct
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Q.: Which one of the following statements about system testing is NOT true?
 

 A. System tests are often performed by independent teams.
B. Functional testing is used more than structural testing.

C. Faults found during system tests can be very expensive to fix.
D. End-users should be involved in system tests.

D is correct
 

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Q.: Which of the following is not described in a unit test standard?  
A. Syntax testing
B. Equivalence partitioning

C. Stress testing
D. Modified condition/decision coverage

C is correct
 

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 Q.: Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools providing test capture and replay facilities? 
 A. Regression testing
B. Integration testing

C. System testing
D. User acceptance testing

A is correct
 

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Q.: Which of the following is false?  
A. Incidents should always be fixed.
B. An incident occurs when expected and actual results differ.

C. Incidents can be analysed to assist in test process improvement.
D. An incident can be raised against documentation.

A is correct
 

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Q.: Which  document  specifies  the  execution  order  of  test  cases? 
A. Test  design  specification
B. Test  item

C. Test  procedure  specification
D. Test  plan

C is correct
 

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Q.: Which of the following statements is NOT correct?  
A. A minimal test set that achieves 100% LCSAJ coverage will also achieve 100% branch coverage.
B. A minimal test set that achieves 100% path coverage will also achieve 100% statement coverage.
C. A minimal test set that achieves 100% path coverage will generally detect more faults than one that achieves 100% statement coverage.
D. A minimal test set that achieves 100% statement coverage will generally detect more faults than one that achieves 100% branch coverage.

 D is correct  
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Q.: How  are  integration  testing  and  use  case  testing  similar  and  dissimilar?  
A. Both  checks  for  interactions: integration  for components, use  case for  actions
B. Both  are  black-box techniques: integration is  low-level, use  case is  high-level
C. Both  are  static testing: developers  perform  integration, users  execute  use  case  tests
C. Both  are  V&V  techniques: integration  is for  validation, use case is for  verification
 

A is correct  
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Q.: Which of the following statements about component testing is not true?
A. Component testing should be performed by development
B. Component testing is also know as isolation or module testing
C. Component testing should have completion criteria planned
D. Component testing does not involve regression testing
D is correct
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Q.: Equivalence partitioning is:
A. A black box testing technique used only by developers
B. A black box testing technique than can only be used during system testing

C. A black box testing technique appropriate to all levels of testing
D. A white box testing technique appropriate for component testing

C is correct
 

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Q.: Which of the following is the main purpose of the integration strategy for integration testing in the small?
A. To ensure that all of the small modules are tested adequately
B. To ensure that the system interfaces to other systems and networks
C. To specify which modules to combine when and how many at once
D. To ensure that the integration testing can be performed by a small team
E. To specify how the software should be divided into modules

C is correct
 

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Q.: Which expression best matches the following characteristics or review processes: 
1. Led by author
2. Undocumented
3. No management participation
4. Led by a trained moderator or leader
5. Uses entry exit criteria
s) Inspection
t) Peer review
u) Informal review
v) Walkthrough

A. s = 4, t = 3, u = 2 and 5, v = 1
B. s = 4 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 1
C. s = 1 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 4
D. s = 5, t = 4, u = 3, v = 1 and 2
E. s = 4 and 5, t = 1, u = 2, v = 3
B is correct
 
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Q.: Given the following types of tool, which tools would typically be used by developers and which by an independent test team: i. Static analysis
ii. Performance testing
iii. Test management
iv. Dynamic analysis
v. Test running
vi. Test data preparation
 
A. Developers would typically use i, iv and vi; test team ii, iii and v
B. Developers would typically use i and iv; test team ii, iii, v and vi
C. Developers would typically use i, ii, iii and iv; test team v and vi
D. Developers would typically use ii, iv and vi; test team I, ii and v
E. Developers would typically use i, iii, iv and v; test team ii and vi
B is correct
 
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Q.: Which of the following statements is NOT true: 
A. Inspection is the most formal review process
B. Inspections should be led by a trained leader
C. Managers can perform inspections on management documents
D. Inspection is appropriate even when there are no written documents
E. Inspection compares documents with predecessor (source) documents
D is correct
 
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Q.: What can static analysis NOT find? 
A. The use of a variable before it has been defined
B. Unreachable ("dead") code
C. Whether the value stored in a variable is correct
D. The re-definition of a variable before it has been used
E. Array bound violations
C is correct
 
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Q.: What statement about expected outcomes is FALSE: 
A. Expected outcomes are defined by the software�s behaviour
B. Expected outcomes are derived from a specification, not from the code
C. Expected outcomes include outputs to a screen and changes to files and databases
D. Expected outcomes should be predicted before a test is run
E. Expected outcomes may include timing constraints such as response times
A is correct
 
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Q.: Which of the following helps in monitoring the Test Progress: i. Percentage of Test Case Execution
ii. Percentage of work done in test environment preparation.
iii. Defect Information e.g. defect density, defects found and fixed
iv. The size of the testing Team and skills of the engineers

A. iv is correct and i,ii,iii are incorrect
B. i,ii,iii are correct and iv is incorrect
C. i,ii are correct and iii,iv are incorrect
D. i,iv are correct and ii , iii are incorrect

B is correct
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Q.: Which of the following is true about White and Black Box Testing Technique:- 
A. Equivalence partitioning, Decision Table and Control flow are White box Testing Techniques.
B. Equivalence partitioning, Boundary Value Analysis , Data Flow are Black Box Testing Techniques.
C. Equivalence partitioning , State Transition , Use Case Testing are black box Testing Techniques.
D. Equivalence Partitioning, State Transition, Use Case Testing and Decision Table are White Box Testing Techniques.
C is correct

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1 comment:


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